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Physics A (Gateway) · OCR J249 · Paper 4 · Higher · June 2025

OCR GCSE Physics A (Gateway) Paper 4 Higher June 2025 question paper J249/04

1h 45m 90 marks

OCR J249 · Paper 4

23 questions
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Question 1

An electromagnetic wave travels in a vacuum.

A second electromagnetic wave travelling in a vacuum has a smaller wavelength.

Which row describes how the frequency and velocity of the second electromagnetic wave compares with the frequency and velocity of the original wave?

FrequencyVelocity
Alargerequal
Blargerlarger
Csmallerequal
Dsmallerlarger
Question 1, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 1

Question 2

A sound wave travels from air to water. The speed of the sound wave is directly proportional to its wavelength.

The wavelength of the sound wave in air is 80 cm.

The speed of the sound wave increases by a factor of 4 when it enters the water.

What is the wavelength of the sound wave in the water?

A 20 cm

B 40 cm

C 160 cm

D 320 cm

Question 2, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 2

Question 3

What is the function of the neutral wire in an electrical device?

A To cause a potential difference between this wire and the earth wire

B To complete the circuit from the device back to the power supply

C To melt if the current through it is too high due to a fault

D To provide a low resistance path for the current if there is a fault

Question 3, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 3

Question 4

A scientist is doing an experiment using a radioactive source that emits only gamma rays.

Which safety procedure does not reduce irradiation of the scientist?

A The scientist places a lead shield between themselves and the source.

B The scientist points the source away from them.

C The scientist uses very long tongs to handle the source.

D The scientist wears gloves while handling the source.

Question 4, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 4

Question 5

Red light has a maximum wavelength of 750 nm.

Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum contains radiation with a wavelength of 850 nm?

A infrared

B ultraviolet

C visible light

D X-ray

Question 5, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 5

Question 6

A ball is floating on the surface of some water.

Waves are created on the surface of the water as shown.

Figure for question 6

Which arrow shows the direction of movement of the ball due to the water waves?

Figure for question 6
Question 6, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 6

Question 7

Which value could be the speed of a person running?

A 0.50 m / s

B 5.0 m / s

C 50 m / s

D 500 m / s

Question 7, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 7

Question 8

Which row describes the domestic mains supply in the UK?

Voltage (V)Frequency (Hz)Type of voltage output
A50230alternating
B50230direct
C23050alternating
D23050direct
Question 8, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 8

Question 9

The diagram shows a ray of light travelling from air into glass.

Figure for question 9

Which line shows the refracted ray of light?

Question 9, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 9

Question 10

Which value is equal to 450 μJ of energy?

4.5 × 10–6 J A

4.5 × 10–5 J B

4.5 × 10–4 J C

4.5 × 10–3 J D

Question 10, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 10

Question 11

Figure for question 11

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 11

Question 12

The diagram shows white light passing through a triangular glass prism.

Figure for question 12

Which sentence describes why white light disperses into a spectrum of different colours?

A Each colour changes frequency by different amounts when they cross the boundary between glass and air.

B Each colour changes speed by different amounts when they cross the boundary between glass and air.

C Each colour decreases in amplitude by different amounts.

D Each colour transfers energy at different rates while in the glass.

Question 12, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 12

Question 13

Which sentence explains why the Sun maintains a constant size?

A The force due to gravity is balanced by the repulsive force between positively charged hydrogen nuclei in the high temperature gas.

B The force due to gravity is balanced by the force due to the energy released from nuclear fission inside the core of the star.

C The force due to gravity is balanced by the force due to gas pressure caused by the energy released from fusion.

D The force due to gravity is balanced by the force from the radiation emitted from the high temperature gas inside the star.

Question 13, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 13

Question 14

The energy released from the fission of a single uranium-235 nucleus is 3.2 × 10–11 J. 14

A uranium-235 nucleus splits and releases 3 neutrons, causing a chain reaction.

These neutrons are absorbed by 3 further uranium-235 nuclei causing these nuclei to split.

What is the total energy released?

6.4 × 10–11 J A

9.6 × 10–11 J B

1.3 × 10–10 J C

2.9 × 10–10 J D

Question 14, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 14

Question 15

The diagram shows a distant galaxy that is receding from the Earth. The galaxy is rotating in the direction shown.

Visible light from both sides of the galaxy is detected on the Earth.

The galaxy recession and its rotation cause redshift of this visible light.

Which row correctly compares the wavelengths of the visible light detected on the Earth from side Q of the galaxy, from side P of the galaxy and from the Sun?

Direction of rotation

Figure for question 15
Question 15, shown as an image

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 15

Question 16

A student drops a rock into a pond from a height of 1.5 m.

Figure for question 16
(a)
Figure for question 16

[4]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 16(a)
(b)

The student drops an identical rock from a height of 2.0 m.

The student notices that the ripples produced by this rock have a larger amplitude than the ripples produced by the first rock.

(b)(i)

Explain why the rock dropped from a greater height produces ripples with a larger amplitude.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 16(b)(i)
(b)(ii)

Describe how the student uses a metre ruler and a stop clock to determine the speed of the ripples.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 16(b)(ii)

Question 17

The diagram shows a pendulum bob attached to a stand using string.

Figure for question 17

A student lifts the pendulum bob to the position shown on the diagram.

The student then releases the pendulum bob so that it swings freely.

(a)

The student notices that the maximum height of the pendulum bob above the bench decreases after each swing.

Explain why the maximum height of the pendulum bob decreases after each swing.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 17(a)
(b)

The student holds a metre ruler behind the swinging pendulum bob and measures the maximum height of the pendulum bob above the bench.

(b)(i)

Give two reasons why the student’s method might not give an accurate value for the maximum height of the pendulum bob.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 17(b)(i)
(b)(ii)

Describe two ways to improve the student’s method to obtain a more accurate value of the maximum height of the pendulum bob at the end of each swing.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 17(b)(ii)
(c)

The graph shows how the maximum height of the pendulum bob above the bench changes as the pendulum bob swings.

Figure for question 17

The initial release height of the pendulum bob above the bench is 19 cm.

Determine the maximum height after 6 swings as a percentage of the initial release height.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 17(c)

Question 18

The James Webb space telescope orbits the Sun in a circular orbit.

Fig. 18.1 shows the orbital path of the telescope around the Sun.

Fig. 18.1

Figure for question 18
(a)

A force acts on the telescope to keep it in orbit around the Sun.

(a)(i)

State the name of this force.

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 18(a)(i)
(a)(ii)

Draw an arrow on Fig. 18.1 to show the direction of the force acting on the telescope.

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 18(a)(ii)
(b)

The telescope is accelerating towards the Sun.

Explain why the telescope is accelerating even though its speed remains constant.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 18(b)
(c)

The James Webb space telescope is always within 1.5 million kilometres of the Earth.

The telescope is in constant use by scientists on the Earth.

Suggest a reason why it is important for the telescope to remain close to the Earth.

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 18(c)
(d)

The James Webb space telescope detects electromagnetic radiation from stars and galaxies.

Some telescopes on the Earth’s surface also detect electromagnetic radiation from stars and galaxies.

Describe an advantage of using the James Webb space telescope to detect this radiation instead of a telescope on the Earth’s surface.

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 18(d)
(e)

Fig. 18.2 shows the paths of the orbits around the Sun of both the James Webb space telescope and a planet labelled X.

Fig. 18.2

Figure for question 18

Compare the speeds of planet X and the telescope.

Explain your answer.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 18(e)

Question 19

A student researches rockets.

Fig. 19.1 shows a rocket burning fuel as it moves away from the Earth.

Fig. 19.1

Figure for question 19

The rocket accelerates vertically upwards.

Fig. 19.2 shows how the energy in the chemical store of the fuel is transferred to other energy stores in the rocket and in the surroundings.

Fig. 19.2

Figure for question 19
(a)

The energy in the gravitational potential store of the rocket increases as the rocket accelerates vertically upwards.

Why does the energy in the gravitational potential store of the rocket increase?

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 19(a)
(b)

The energy in the thermal store of the rocket increases as the rocket accelerates vertically upwards.

What effect does this have on the rocket?

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 19(b)
(c)

When the fuel burns, it transfers 510 MJ of energy in one second.

(c)(i)

Explain why the total energy gained by other energy stores must also be 510 MJ in one second.

[1]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 19(c)(i)
(c)(ii)

When the fuel burns, 320 MJ of energy is wasted in one second.

Calculate the efficiency of the rocket.

Question 19, shown as an image

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 19(c)(ii)
(d)
(d)(i)

The student finds out that:

• the energy in the kinetic store of the rocket increases by 1.2 × 108 J every second as the fuel burns

• the initial mass of the rocket is 8.5 × 104 kg.

Calculate the minimum speed of the rocket after the fuel has been burning for 12 seconds if the rocket starts at rest. Use the equation: kinetic energy = fraction × mass × (speed)2

Speed =........ m / s

[4]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 19(d)(i)
(d)(ii)

Explain why the actual speed of the rocket after the fuel has been burning for 12 seconds is greater than the value calculated in (d)(i).

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 19(d)(ii)

Question 20

A technician investigates an unknown radioactive metal as shown in Fig. 20.1.

Fig. 20.1

Figure for question 20
(a)
(a)(i)

Describe how the technician obtains a precise measurement of the count rate from the radioactive metal.

Include the name of any extra equipment the technician uses.

You may draw on Fig. 20.1.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 20(a)(i)
(a)(ii)

Explain how the technician shows that the radioactive metal emits only gamma radiation.

Include the name of any extra equipment the technician uses.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 20(a)(ii)
(b)

The technician thinks that the radioactive metal is one of the four metals shown in Table 20.1.

Table 20.1

MetalNuclear radiation emittedHalf-life
Agamma4 hours
Bgamma10 years
Cgamma2 years
Dgamma28 days
(b)(i)

The technician uses equal masses of each metal in Table 20.1.

Explain which metal in Table 20.1 is likely to be the most hazardous to the technician while doing the experiment.

Metal........

Explanation........

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 20(b)(i)
(b)(ii)

Metal D is considered to be safe when the count rate drops to fraction of the original count rate. Calculate the time required for metal D to be safe.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 20(b)(ii)

Question 21

Scientists are working on nuclear fusion technology so that, in the future, nuclear fusion power stations could be built to generate electricity.

(a)

The expected power output of a nuclear fusion power station in the future is 1.3 × 109 W. (a)

The average energy output of an individual fusion reaction is 2.8 × 10–12 J.

Calculate the number of fusion reactions that would occur per second in the power station.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 21(a)
(b)
Figure for question 21

[6]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 21(b)

Question 22

Ultrasound waves are used to produce images of the inside of the human body.

The ultrasound waves reflect from the boundary between two different materials inside the human body.

The diagram shows an ultrasound transducer that emits and receives ultrasound waves.

Figure for question 22

A computer is connected to the ultrasound transducer.

The computer records a time of 2.8 × 10–7 s between emitting one ultrasound wave and receiving the reflection of this wave from the boundary between the fat tissue and the muscle tissue.

The speed of ultrasound waves in fat tissue is 1500 m / s.

(a)

Calculate the thickness of the fat tissue.

Use the Equation Sheet.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 22(a)
(b)

The wavelength of the ultrasound wave in the fat tissue is 4.3 × 10–4 m. (b)

Calculate the frequency of the ultrasound wave.

Use the equation: wave speed = frequency × wavelength

Give your answer to 2 significant figures.

[4]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 22(b)
(c)

When the ultrasound wave hits the boundary between the fat tissue and the denser muscle tissue, the ultrasound wave is partially reflected and partially transmitted.

The transmitted ultrasound wave continues into the denser muscle tissue.

Explain the change in wavelength of the ultrasound wave as it passes from fat tissue into muscle tissue.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 22(c)

Question 23

Figure for question 23
(a)

When the battery is connected to the primary coil the transformer does not work and the voltmeter reads zero.

Describe what change the student needs to make to their equipment so that the voltmeter shows that there is a continuous potential difference across the secondary coil.

Explain your answer.

Change........

Explanation........

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 23(a)
(b)

The student changes the equipment in the diagram so that the transformer works.

The student obtains the results shown in the table.

Number of turns on secondary coilPotential difference across secondary coil (V)Current in secondary coil (A)
1606.40.47
1204.8
803.20.94
(b)(i)

Describe the relationship between the number of turns on the secondary coil and the potential difference across the secondary coil.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 23(b)(i)
(b)(ii)

Calculate the current in the secondary coil when there are 120 turns on the secondary coil.

Assume the transformer is 100% efficient.

Use the Equation Sheet.

[3]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 23(b)(ii)
(b)(iii)

The potential difference across the primary coil in the student’s transformer is 12 V.

The student suggests that this transformer is the same as the type of transformer used between a power station and the power lines.

Explain why this type of transformer is not the same as the type of transformer used between a power station and the power lines.

[2]

Answer
Mark scheme for question 23(b)(iii)

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